CDS 2018-II General Knowledge Solved Paper

CDS Solved Papers

CDS 2023 - II Solved Paper CDS 2023 - I Solved Paper CDS 2022 - II Solved Paper CDS 2022 - I Solved Paper CDS 2021 - II Solved Paper CDS 2021 - I Solved Paper CDS 2020 - II Solved Paper CDS 2020 - I Solved Paper CDS 2019 - II Solved Paper CDS 2019 - I Solved Paper

Combined Defence Services Examination 2018 - II Solved Paper

Solved Question Paper - General Knowledge - Exam held on 18 November 2018

Click on the Show Answer button to see the answer.

1. Two reactants in a flask at room temperature are producing bubbles of a gas that turn limewater milky. The reactants could be

  1. zinc and hydrochloric acid
  2. magnesium carbonate and hydrochloric acid
  3. methane and oxygen
  4. copper and dilute hydrochloric acid

2. How many moles of CO can be obtained by reacting 2.0 mole of CH4 with 2.0 mole of O2 according to the equation given below?

  1. 2.0
  2. 0.5
  3. 2.5
  4. 4.0

3. Reaction between which of the following two reactants will produce hydrogen gas?

  1. Magnesium and hydrochloric acid
  2. Copper and dilute nitric acid
  3. Calcium carbonate and hydrochloric acid
  4. Zinc and nitric acid

4. Which of the following characteristics is common to hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen and carbon dioxide?

  1. They are all diatomic.
  2. They are all gases at room temperature.
  3. They are all coloured.
  4. They all have same reactivity.

5. The compound C7H7NO2 has

  1. 17 atoms in a molecule of the compound
  2. equal molecules of C and H by mass
  3. twice the mass of oxygen atoms compared to nitrogen atoms
  4. twice the mass of nitrogen atoms compared to hydrogen atoms

6. Which of the following is the general formula for saturated hydrocarbons?

  1. CnH2n + 2
  2. CnH2n - 2
  3. CnH2n + 1
  4. CnH2n - 1

7. A particle moves with uniform acceleration along a straight line from rest. The percentage increase in displacement during sixth second compared to that in fifth second is about

  1. 11%
  2. 22%
  3. 33%
  4. 44%

8. If two miscible liquids of same volume but different densities P1 and P2 are mixed, then the density of the mixture is given by

  1. (P1 + P2)/2
  2. (2P1P2)/(P1 + P2)
  3. (2P1P2)/(P1 - P2)
  4. (P1P2)/(P1 + P2)

9. The position vector of a particle is

Then the instantaneous velocity v and acceleration a respectively lie

  1. on xy-plane and along z-direction
  2. on yz-plane and along x-direction
  3. on yz-plane and along y-direction
  4. on xy-plane and along x-direction

10. Two persons are holding a rope of negligible mass horizontally. A 20 kg mass is attached to the rope at the midpoint; as a result the rope deviates from the horizontal direction. The tension required to completely straighten the rope is (g = 10 m/s2

  1. 200 N
  2. 20 N
  3. 10 N
  4. infinitely large

11. Which one of the following does NOT convert electrical energy into light energy?

  1. A candle
  2. A light-emitting diode
  3. A laser
  4. A television set

12. Which of the following is/are the main absorbing organ/organs of plants?

  1. Root only
  2. Leaf only
  3. Root and leaf only
  4. Root, leaf and bark

13. Which of the following is NOT a primary function of a green leaf?

  1. Manufacture of food
  2. Interchange of gases
  3. Evaporation of water
  4. Conduction of food and water

14. Which one of the following denotes a 'true' fruit?

  1. When only the thalamus of the flower grows and developes into a fruit
  2. When only the receptacle of the flower develops into a fruit
  3. When fruit originates only from the calyx of a flower
  4. When only the ovary of the flower grows into a fruit

15. In which one of the following physiological processes, excess water escapes in the form of droplets from a plant?

  1. Transpiration
  2. Guttation
  3. Secretion
  4. Excretion

16. If the xylem of a plant is mechanically blocked, which of the following functions of the plant will be affected?

  1. Transport of water only
  2. Transport of water and solutes
  3. Transport of solutes
  4. Transport of gases

17. Which one of the following agents does NOT contribute to propagation of plants through seed dispersal?

  1. Wind
  2. Fungus
  3. Animal
  4. Water

18. The visible portion of the electromagnetic spectrum is

  1. infrared
  2. radiowave
  3. microwave
  4. light

19. Which one of the following is the correct ascending sequence of States in terms of their population density as per Census 2011?

  1. Arunachal Pradesh - Sikkim - Mizoram - Himachal Pradesh
  2. Arunachal Pradesh - Mizoram - Sikkim - Himachal Pradesh
  3. Mizoram - Arunachal Pradesh - Himachal Pradesh - Sikkim
  4. Arunachal Pradesh - Himachal Pradesh - Sikkim - Mizoram

20. The rate of population growth during 2001-2011 decade declined over the previous decade (1991-2001) in all of the following States, except

  1. Tamil Nadu
  2. Kerala
  3. Goa
  4. Andhra Pradesh

21. Which one of the following statements with regard to growth of caral reefs is NOT correct?

  1. Coral can grow abundantly in fresh-water.
  2. It requires warm water between 23o - 25o C.
  3. It requires shallow saltwater, not deeper than 50 metres.
  4. It requires plenty of sunlight to aid photosynthesis.

22. As per Census 2011, the cocentration of Scheduled Caste population (going by percentage of Scheduled Caste population to total population of the State) is the highest in the State of

  1. Uttar Pradesh
  2. Himachal Pradesh
  3. Punjab
  4. West Bengal

23. Which one of the following States has more than two major ports?

  1. Maharashtra
  2. West Bengal
  3. Odisha
  4. Tamil Nadu

24. The equivalent weight of Ba(OH)2 is (given, atomic weight of Ba is 137.3)

  1. 85.7
  2. 137.3
  3. 154.3
  4. 171.3

25. Which one of the following nitrogen oxides has the highest oxidation state of nitrogen?

  1. NO
  2. NO2
  3. N2O
  4. N2O5

26. Which one of the following is NOT true for the form of carbon known as diamond?

  1. It is harder than graphite.
  2. It contains the same percentage of carbon as graphite.
  3. It is a better electric conductor than graphite.
  4. It has different carbon to carbon distance in all directions.

27. In which one of the following reactions, the maximum quantity of H2 gas is produced by the decomposition of 1 g of compond H2O/O2?

  1. CH4 + H2O → CO + 3H2
  2. CO + H2O → CO2 + H2
  3. CH4 + o2/2 → + 2H2
  4. C12H24 + 6O2 → 12CO + 12H2

28. When a convex lens produces a real image of an object, the minimum distance between the object and image is equal to

  1. the focal length of the convex lens
  2. twice the focal length of the convex lens
  3. four times the focal length of the convex lens
  4. one half of the focal length of the convex lens

29. The direction of magnetic field at any location on the earth's surface is commonly specified in terms of

  1. field declination
  2. field inclination
  3. both field declination and field inclination
  4. horizontal component of the field

30. A circuit has a fuse having a rating of 5 A. What is the maximum number of 100 W-220 V bulbs that can be safely connected in parallel in the circuit?

  1. 20
  2. 15
  3. 11
  4. 10

31. Which one of the following can extinguish fire more quickly?

  1. Cold water
  2. Boiling water
  3. Hot water
  4. Ice

32. In which of the following, heat loss is primarily NOT due to convection?

  1. Boiling water
  2. Land and sea breeze
  3. Circulation of air around blast furnace
  4. Heating of glass surface of a bulb due to current in filament

33. Which one of the following features is an indication for modification of stem of a plant?

  1. Presence of 'eye' on potato
  2. 'Scale' found in onion
  3. 'Tendril' found in pea
  4. 'Hair' present in carrot

34. Which of the following roles is/are played by epididymis, vas deferens, seminal vesicles and prostate in male reproductive system of human?

  1. Spermatogenesis and maturation of sperms
  2. Maturation and motility of sperms
  3. Spermatogenesis and motility of sperms
  4. Motility of sperms only

35. Which one of the following is the special type of milk produced by a lactating mother, essential for the development of immune response of newborn baby in human?

  1. Breast milk produced after a month of childbirth
  2. Transitional milk
  3. Colostrum
  4. Mineralized milk

36. Which one of the following statements explains higher mutation rate and faster evolution found in RNA virus?

  1. RNA is relatively unstable compared to DNA.
  2. Virus can multiply only within the living cell of a host.
  3. Metabolic processes are absent in virus.
  4. Virus can remain latent for a long period.

37. Which one of the following is the correct ascending sequence of States with regard to percentage of urban population (2011)?

  1. Tamil Nadu - Mizoram - Goa - Maharashtra
  2. Goa - Mizoram - Maharashtra - Kerala
  3. Maharashtra - Kerala - Mizoram - Goa
  4. Mizoram - Goa - Maharashtra - Kerala

38. Which one of the following places does NOT fall on leeward slope?

  1. Pune
  2. Bengaluru
  3. Leh
  4. Mangaluru

39. South Arcot and Ramanathapuram receive over 50 percent of their annual rainfall from which one of the following?

  1. South-west monsoon
  2. North-east monsoon
  3. Bay of Bengal branch of summer monsoon
  4. Western disturbances

40. The Eight Degree Channel separates which of the following?

  1. India from Sri Lanka
  2. Lakshadweep from Maldives
  3. Andaman from Nicobar Islands
  4. Indira Point from Indonesia

41. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List I
(Classification of Town)		List II
(Example)
A. Industrial Town1. Visakhapatnam
B. Transport Town2. Bhilai
C. Mining Town3. Singrauli
D. Garrison Cantonment Town4. Ambala

Code:

  1. A - 2; B - 1; C - 3; D - 4
  2. A - 2; B - 3; C - 1; D - 4
  3. A - 4; B - 3; C - 1; D - 2
  4. A - 4; B - 1; C - 3; D - 2

42. Which of the following statements with regard to the land-sue situation in India is/are correct?

  1. There has been a tremendous decline in area under forest in recent years.
  2. The rate of increase in land use in recent years is the highest in case of area under non-agricultural use.
  3. Land use such as barren and wasteland, area under pastures and tree crops have experienced decline in recent years.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

43. Which one of the following was NOT a part of the strategies followed by the Government of India to increase food grain production in India immediately after Independence?

  1. Intensification of cropping over already cultivated land
  2. Increasing cultivable area by brining cultivable and fallow land under plough
  3. Using high-yielding varieties (HYV) seeds
  4. Switching over from cash crops to food crops

44. Which one of the following is a west-flowing river?

  1. Mahanadi
  2. Godavari
  3. Krishna
  4. Narmada

45. Khasi language is included in

  1. Munda branch of Austro-Asiatic sub-family
  2. Mon-Khmer branch of Austro-Asiatic sub-family
  3. North Assam branch of Sino-Tibetan family
  4. Assam-Myanmari branch of Sino-Tibetan family

46. The headquarters of Metro Railway Zone is located in

  1. New Delhi
  2. Mumbai
  3. Kolkata
  4. Chennai

47. Which one among the following is NOT a tributary of river Luni?

  1. Khari
  2. Sukri
  3. Jawai
  4. Banas

48. Match List 1 with List 2 and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List -1
(Major Dam)		List – 2 (State)
A. Cheruthoni1. Madhya Pradesh
B. Indira Sagar Dam2. Tamil Nadu
C. Krishnarajasagar Dam3. Karnataka
D. Mettur4. Kerala

Code :

  1. A - 2; B - 1; C - 3; D - 4
  2. A - 2; B - 3; C - 1; D - 4
  3. A - 4; B - 3; C - 1; D - 2
  4. A - 4; B - 1; C - 3; D - 2

49. Which one among the following Union Territories of India shares the shortest length of National Highways?

  1. Chandigarh
  2. Delhi
  3. Daman and Diu
  4. Dadra and Nagar Haveli

50. Which one among the following passes links Lhasa with Ladakh?

  1. Lanak La
  2. Burzil
  3. Babusar
  4. Khyber

51. According to the latest Reserve Bank of India study on State finances, capital spending is maximum on

  1. rural development
  2. water supply and sanitation
  3. urban development
  4. education

52. According to the World Bank's Doing Business Report, 2018, India's ranking has improved in 2018 as compared to 2017 in which of the following areas?

  1. Paying taxes
  2. Resolving insolvency
  3. Starting a business
  4. Getting electricity

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 1, 2 and 3
  4. 2, 3 and 4

53. The Fourteenth Finance Commission assigned different weights to the following parameters for distribution of tax proceeds to the States:

  1. Income distance
  2. Population
  3. Demographic changes
  4. Area

Arrange the aforesaid parameters in descending order in terms of their weights

  1. 1-2-3-4
  2. 1-2-4-3
  3. 1-3-2-4
  4. 4-3-2-1

54. The natural rate of unemployment hypothesis was advocated by

  1. Milton Friedman
  2. A.W. Phillips
  3. J.M. Keynes
  4. R.G. Lipsey

55. The Harappan site at Kot Diji is close to which one of the following major sites of that civilization?

  1. Harappa
  2. Mohenjo-daro
  3. Lothal
  4. Kalibangan

56. The story Gandatindu Jataka was written in which language?

  1. Sanskrit
  2. Telugu
  3. Tamil
  4. Pali

57. According to the Tamil Sangam texts, whoc among the following were the large landowners?

  1. Gahapatis
  2. Uzhavars
  3. Adimais
  4. Vellalars

58. According teh Manusmriti, women can acquire wealth through which of the following means?

  1. Purchase
  2. Investment
  3. Token of affection
  4. Inheritance

59. The dialogue on Varna between king Avantiputta and Kachchana, a disciple of Buddha, appears in which one of the following Buddhist texts?

  1. Majjhima Nikaya
  2. Samyutta Nikaya
  3. Anguttara Nikaya
  4. Ambattha Sutta

60. In the first century AD, which among the following was NOT a major item of India exports to Rome?

  1. Pepper
  2. Spikenard
  3. Tortoiseshell
  4. Nutmeg

61. Which of the following statements relating to the Government of India Act, 1858 is/are correct?

  1. The British Crown assumed sovereignty over India from the East India Company.
  2. The British Parliament enacted the first statue for the governance of India under the direct rule of the British.
  3. This Act was dominated by the principle of absolute imperial control without any popular participation in the administration of the country.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 1, 2 and 3
  4. 1 and 3 only

62. Which of the following statements relating to the Indian Councils Act, 1861 is/are correct?

  1. The Act introduced a grain of popular element by including non-official members in the Governor-General's Executive Council.
  2. The members were nominaed and their functions were confined exclusively to consideration of legislative proposals placed before it by the Governor-General.
  3. The Governor-General did not have effective legislative power.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1, 2 and 3
  4. 1 only

63. Which of the following statements relating to the historic Objectives Resolution, which was adopted by the Constituent Assembly, is/are correct?

  1. The Objectives Resolution inspired the shaping of the Constitution through all its subsequent stages.
  2. It was not just a resolution, but a declaration, a firm resolve and a pledge.
  3. It provided the underlying philosophy of our Constitution.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1 only
  3. 1, 2 and 3
  4. 2 and 3 only

64. The 2+2 Bilateral Dialogue was held in September 2018 between

  1. External Affairs and Defence Ministers of India with their US counterparts
  2. Finance and Defence Minister of India with their Russian counterparts
  3. Home and Defence Minister of India and their counterparts in Pakistan
  4. External Affairs and Defence Minister of India with their counterparts in Pakistan

65. Who is the Chairman of the Defence Planning Committee set up in April 2018?

  1. The Prime Minister
  2. The National Security Advisor
  3. The Defence Minister
  4. The Chief of the Army Staff

66. Tejas is the name of which one of the following?

  1. Main battle tank
  2. Nuclear submarine
  3. Light combat aircraft
  4. Aircraft carrier

67. As per the extant policy, Foreign Direct Investment is permitted in the defence sector under the automatic route up to which one of the following limits?

  1. 26 percent
  2. 74 percent
  3. 51 percent
  4. 49 percent

68. The policy on strategic partnerships in defence was approved by the Ministry of Defence in May 2017. Which of the following is NOT among the four segments identified by the Ministry for acquisition through the strategic partnership route?

  1. Artillery guns
  2. Fighter aircraft and helicopters
  3. Submarines
  4. Armoured fighting vehicles and main battle tanks

69. The acronym 'CAATSA' refers to a piece of legislation enacted by which one of the following countries?

  1. United Kingdom
  2. United States of America
  3. Russia
  4. India

70. Who among the following is the Convener of the 'Task Force' set up in November 2017 by the Government of India review the Income-tax Act and draft a new direct tax law?

  1. Girish Ahuja
  2. Mukesh Patel
  3. Arbind Modi
  4. Mansi Kedia

71. With regard to the cabinet decision in July 2018, the percentage increase in Minimum Support Price (MSP) is maximum in which one of the following crops?

  1. Jowar (Hybrid)
  2. Bajra
  3. Maize
  4. Soya bean

Directions:

The following four (4) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below.

Code:

  1. Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
  2. Both the statements are individually true, But Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.
  3. Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
  4. Statement I is false, but statement II is true.

72.
Statement I:
The overall fiscal deficit of the States in India during 2017-2018 stayed above the FRBM threshold level of 3 percent for the third successive year.

Statement II:
Special Category States had run up a higher level of fiscal deficit in 2017-18 compared to 2016-17.

73.
Statement I:
There has been a sharp decline in savings rate in Indian economy between 2007-2008 to 2015-2016.

Statement II:
There has been a fall in household and public savings.

74.
Statement I:
Private investments in research have severely lagged public investments in India.

Statement II:
Universities play a relatively small role in the research activities of the country.

75.
Statement I:
Agriculture in India still accounts for a substantial share in total employment.

Statement II:
There has been no decline in volatility of agricultural growth in India.

76. Who among the following European travellers never returned to Europe and settled down in India?

  1. Duarte Barbosa
  2. Manucci
  3. Tavernier
  4. Bernier

77. The class of Amer Nayakas in Vijayanagara is a reference to which of the following?

  1. Village Chieftains
  2. Senior Civil Servants
  3. Tributary Chiefs
  4. Military Commanders

78. The important source for Akbar's reign, Tarikh-i-Akbari was written by which one of the following Persian language scholars?

  1. Arif Qandahari
  2. Bayazid Bayat
  3. Abdul Qadir Badauni
  4. Nizamuddin Ahmad

79. The aristocrat Muqarrab Khan was a great favourite of which Mughal Emperor?

  1. Akbar
  2. Jahangir
  3. Farrukhsiyar
  4. Shah Alam

80. Who was the first Nawab Wazir of Awadh in the 18th century?

  1. Nawab Safdarjung
  2. Nawab Saadat Ali Khan
  3. Nawab Shuja-ud-Daula
  4. Nawab Saadat Khan

81. According to the French traveller Tavernier, the majority of houses in Varanasi during the 17th century were made of

  1. brick and mud
  2. stone and thatch
  3. wood and stone
  4. brick and stone

82. Which of the following statements relating to the duties of the Governor is/are correct?

  1. The duties of the Governor as a constitutional Head of the State do not become the subject matter of questions or debate in the Parliament.
  2. Where the Governor takes a decision independently of his Council of Minister or where he acts as the Chief Executive of the State under President's rule, his actions are subject to scrutiny by the Parliament.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

83. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India deals with special provision with respect to the State of Assam?

  1. Article 371A
  2. Article 371B
  3. Article 371C
  4. Article 371D

84. Provisions of which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India apply to the State of Jammu and Kashmir?

  1. Article 238
  2. Article 370
  3. Article 371
  4. Article 371G

85. Which one of the following Schedules to the Constitution of India provides for setting up of Autonomous District Councils?

  1. Third Schedule
  2. Fourth Schedule
  3. Fifth Schedule
  4. Sixth Schedule

86. In which one of the following States was DEFEXPO 2018 held in April 2018?

  1. Goa
  2. Karnataka
  3. Tamil Nadu
  4. Andhra Pradesh

87. The two defence industrial corridors announced by the Finance Minister in his 2018 Budget speech are coming up in which of the following States?

  1. Odisha and West Bengal
  2. Punjab and Haryana
  3. Gujarat and Maharashtra
  4. Uttar Pradesh and Tamil Nadu

88. What is India's first Indigenous Aircraft Carrier (IAC) called?

  1. Vikrant
  2. Virat
  3. Vaibhav
  4. Varaha

89. Which one of the following manufacturers is engaged in upgradation of the Swedish 155-mm Bofors Howitzer under the project 'Dhanush'?

  1. Bharat Electronics Limited
  2. Ordnance Factory Board
  3. Bharat Dynamics Limited
  4. Mishra Dhatu Nigam

90. Which one of the following is the official mascot of Tokyo 2020 Olympic Games?

  1. Soohorang
  2. Vinicius de Moraes
  3. The Hare, the Polar Bear and the Leopard
  4. Miraitowa

91. 'Mission Satyanishtha', a programme on ethics in public governance, was launched recently by the

  1. Indian Railways
  2. Central Bureau of Investigation
  3. Supreme Court
  4. Enforcement Directorate

92. The College of Fort William was established by which one of the following Governor-Generals?

  1. Warren Hastings
  2. Lord Cornwallis
  3. Richard Wellesley
  4. William Bentick

93. The Economic historian, who has used the data collected by Buchanan-Hamilton to support the thesis of deindustrialization in the 19th century India, is

  1. Tirthankar Roy
  2. Amiya Kumar Bagchi
  3. Sabyasachi Bhattacharya
  4. Irfan Habib

94. Tea growing in India in the 19th century was made possible by

  1. Joseph Banks
  2. James Cook
  3. Robert Fortune
  4. Robert Owen

95. Subhas Chandra Bose started the 'Azad Hind Radio' in which of the following countries?

  1. Japan
  2. Austria
  3. Germany
  4. Malaysia

96. Which political party formally accepted the Cabinet Mission Plan on 6th June, 1946, which had rejected the demand for a sovereign Pakistan?

  1. The Hindu Mahasabha
  2. The Congress
  3. The Muslim League
  4. The Unionist Party

97. The elected President of the All India Kisan Sabha, which met in Vijayawada (1944), was

  1. Sahajananda Saraswati
  2. Vinoba Bhave
  3. Achyut Rao Patwardhan
  4. Narendra Dev

98. Which one of the following regarding the tenure of the elected members of the Autonomous District Council is correct?

  1. Five years from the date of election
  2. Five years from the date appointed for the first meeting of the Council after the election
  3. Six years from the date of administration of Oath
  4. Six years from the date of election

99. Who among the following shall cause the accounts of the Autonomous District and Regional Council Funds to be audited?

  1. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India
  2. The Chartered Accountant empanelled by the Government of India
  3. The State Government Auditors
  4. Any Chartered Accountant

100. Who has the power of annulment or suspension of Acts and Resolutions of the Autonomous District and Regional Councils?

  1. The Governor
  2. The President
  3. The Chief Minister of the State
  4. The Prime Minister

101. The audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India relating to the accounts of the Union shall be submitted to

  1. the President
  2. the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
  3. the Prime Minister
  4. the Vice President

102. Which of the following is NOT related to the powers of the Governor?

  1. Diplomatic and military powers
  2. Power to appoint Advocate General
  3. Summoning, proroguing and dissolving State Legislature
  4. Power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remission of punishments

103. Which one of the following regarding the procedure and conduct of business in the Parliament is NOT correct?

  1. To discuss State matters
  2. To discuss issues of the use of police force in suppressing the Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe communities
  3. To discuss issues in dealing with violent disturbances in an Undertaking under the control of the Union Government
  4. To discuss issues for putting down the demands of the industrial labour

104. Which of the following is NOT under the powers and functions of the Election Commission of India?

  1. Superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of elecoral rolls
  2. Conduct of elections to the Parliament and to the Legislature of each State
  3. Conduct of election to the office of the President and the Vice President
  4. Appointment of the Regional Commissioners to assist the Election Commission in the performance of the functions conferred on the Commission

105. Which one of the following criteria is NOT required to be qualified for appointment as Judge of the Supreme Court?

  1. At least five years as a Judge of a High Court
  2. At least ten years as an Advocate of a High Court
  3. In the opinion of the President, a distinguished Jurist
  4. At least twenty years as a Sub-Judicial Magistrate

106. Which one of the following is NOT among the duties of the Chief Minister?

  1. To communicate to the Governor of the State all decisions of the Council of Minister relating to the administration of the affairs of the State and proposals for legislation
  2. To furnish information relating to the administration of the State and proposals for legislation as the Governor may call for
  3. To communicate to the President all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the State in the monthly report
  4. To submit for the consideration of the Council of Ministers any matter on which a decision has been taken by a Minister but has not been considered by the Council, if the Governor so requires

107. Which one of the following is NOT considered a part of the Legislature of States?

  1. The Governor
  2. The Legislative Assembly
  3. The Legislative Council
  4. The Chief Minister

108. Which one of the following regarding the ordinance-making power of the Governor is NOT correct?

  1. It is not a discretionary power.
  2. The Governor may withdraw the ordinance anytime.
  3. The ordinance power can be exercised when the Legislature is not in session.
  4. The aid and and advice of ministers is not required for declaring the ordinance.

109. Which one of the following statements regarding the Universal Declaration of Human Rights is NOT correct?

  1. The UN General Assembly adopted the Human Rights Charter on 10th December, 1948.
  2. Some of the provisions of the Fundamental Rights enshrined in the Constitution of India are similar to the provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights.
  3. The Right to Property is not a part of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights.
  4. India is a signatory to the Universal Declaration of Human Rights.

110. Which one of the following statements regarding the Human Rights Council is NOT correct?

  1. It is an inter-governmental body within the United Nations system made up of all members of the UN.
  2. It is responsible for the promotion and protection of all human rights around the globe.
  3. It replaced the former United Nations Commission on Human Rights.
  4. It is made up of 47 UN Member States which are elected by the UN General Assembly.

111. Ace athlete Neeraj Chopra is an accomplished player in

  1. Hammer throw
  2. Javelin throw
  3. Shot put throw
  4. Discus throw

112. According to the updated World Bank data for 2017, India is the sixth biggest economy of the world (in terms of GDP). Which one of the following is NOT ahead of India?

  1. Japan
  2. UK
  3. France
  4. Germany

113. Which one of the following is correct about 'Aaykar Setu'?

  1. It is a mechanism for achieving excellence in public sector delivery related to GST.
  2. With the use of a mobile app, it facilitates online payment of taxes.
  3. It is a communication strategy designed to collect information and build a database of tax defaulters.
  4. It enables electronic filing and processing of import and export declarations.

114. SWAYAM is

  1. a network that aims to tap the talent pool of scientists and entrepreneurs towards global excellence
  2. a Massive Open Online Courses (MOOCs) initiative on a national platform
  3. an empowerment scheme for advancing the participation of girls in education
  4. a scheme that supports differently abled children to pursue technical education

115. Under the PRASAD Tourism Scheme, which one of the following has NOT been identified as a religious site for development?

  1. Ajmer (Rajasthan)
  2. Haridwar (Uttarakhand)
  3. Somnath (Gujarat)
  4. Velankanni (Tamil Nadu)

116. Name the Indian cricketer who is NOT inducted to the ICC Cricket Hall of Fame (till July 2018).

  1. Rahul Dravid
  2. Sunil Gavaskar
  3. Sachin Tendulkar
  4. Anil Kumble

117. The Central Water Commission has recently entered into a collaborative agreement with which one of the following entities for flood forecasting?

  1. Skymet
  2. Google
  3. MetService
  4. AccuWeather

118. The tagline 'Invaluable Treasures of Incredible India' is associated with the logo for

  1. Archaeological Survey of India
  2. India Tourism Development Corporation
  3. Geological Survey of India
  4. Geographical Indications (GI) of India

119. Who took over the 'Eka Movement' started by the Congress in Awadh during 1921-1922?

  1. Bhagwan Ahir
  2. Madari Pasi
  3. Baba Ramchandra
  4. Shah Naeem Ata

120. Which organization was started at the Haridwar Kumbh Mela in 1915?

  1. Sanatan Dharma Sabha
  2. Dev Samaj
  3. Brahmin Sabha
  4. Hindu Mahasabha


Topicwise CDS Questions

Ancient Indian History British Rule & Freedom Movement Defence G.K. & Current Affairs Economics & Indian Economy Govt Progs & Policies Indian Constitution Light, Lenses and Mirrors Soils, Crops & Agriculture Writs in Indian Constitution