CDS 2023-I General Knowledge Solved Paper

Combined Defence Services Examination 2023 - I Solved Paper

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1. A sprinter feels cramps and pain in the thigh muscles after a run. This is due to the accumulation of

  1. lactic acid
  2. CO2
  3. pyruvic acid
  4. ethanols

2. A leaf was plucked from a plant on a sunny day and kept for 2 minutes in boiling water. It was subsequently immersed in boiling alcohol and treated with iodine solution. What will be the final colour of the leaf after the test?

  1. Colourless
  2. Green
  3. Blue
  4. White

3. If the red blood cells (RBCs) of human blood are isolated and are diluted in normal saline (an isotonic solution to blood), what will happen to the RBCs?

  1. The RBCs will swell
  2. The RBCs will swell and burst
  3. The RBCs will shrink
  4. No change in the diameters of the RBCs

4. Which one of the following statements regarding bile secreted by live is not correct?

  1. Bile contains enzymes for digestion of lipids.
  2. Bile facilitates emulsification of fats.
  3. Bile neutralizes the acidic pH of the food coming from stomach.
  4. Bile makes the pH of the food alkaline and facilitates action of pancreatic enzymes.

5. The blood pressure of a normal human being is found to be 120/80 mmHg. These 'numbers' represent the blood pressure at

  1. ventricular contraction and ventricular relaxation, respectively
  2. ventricular relaxation and ventricular contraction, respectively
  3. auricular contraction and auricular relaxation, respectively
  4. ventricular contraction and auricular contraction, respectively

6. A person burned a firecracker in front of a cliff and heard its echo 5 s after it burst. The distance of the cliff from the person, if the speed of the sound is 340 m/s, is close to

  1. 1700 m
  2. 170 m
  3. 85 m
  4. 850 m

7. Consider the following statements about the microphone and the speaker of a mobile phone:

  1. The microphone converts sound to a mechanical signal.
  2. The microphone converts sound to an electrical signal.
  3. The speaker converts a mechanical signal to sound.
  4. The speaker converts an electrical signal to sound.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

  1. 1 and 3
  2. 1 and 4
  3. 2 and 3
  4. 2 and 4

8. A 100 W electric bulb is used for 10 hours a day. How many units of electrical energy are consumed by the bulb in 3 days? (1 unit = 1kWh)

  1. 3.00
  2. 1.08
  3. 2.16
  4. 0.33

9. The area under the velocity-time graph for a particle moving in a straight line with uniform acceleration gives

  1. its average velocity
  2. its net displacement
  3. the distance travelled by it
  4. its average speed

10. The power of a lens of focal length 10 cm is

  1. 0.1 dioptre
  2. 1 dioptre
  3. 10 dioptre
  4. 100 dioptre

11. Consider the following statements regarding burning of magnesium ribbon in air:

  1. White powder of MgO is formed.
  2. It is an example of combustion reaction.
  3. Heat and light are produced.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

12. Which of the following statements with regard to the reaction given below are corrct?

CaO(s) + H2O(l) -> Ca(OH)2(aq) + Heat

  1. Quicklime is used for white-washing of walls.
  2. The solution of slaked lime is used for whitewashing of walls.
  3. CaO reacts slowly with CO2 in air to form a thin layer of CaCO3 on walls.
  4. Calcium hydroxide called 'slaked lime' is an inorganic compound.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. 1 and 4 only
  2. 2 and 4
  3. 2 and 3
  4. 1, 3 and 4

13. Which one of the following statements with regard to heating of lead nitrate powder over a flame are correct?

  1. Brown fumes of NO are released.
  2. Colourless O2 gas is released.
  3. It is an example of oxidation reaction.
  4. It is an example of thermal decomposition used for the production of NO2 gas.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 2, 3 and 4
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. 2 and 4 only

14. Which one of the following is not an oxidation reaction?

  1. Rusting of iron
  2. Opening of soda bottle
  3. Rancidity
  4. Combustion

15. Consider the following clues about a State of India:

  1. It is known as 'land of red river and blue hills'.
  2. It contains three of the physiographic divisions of India.
  3. It covers about 2.39 percent of total area of the country.

Identify the State on the basis of the given clues.

  1. Karnataka
  2. Andhra Pradesh
  3. Assam
  4. Chhattisgarh

16. Which of the following sets of States shares boundary with Telangana?

  1. Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Maharashtra
  2. Chhattisgarh, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh
  3. Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh
  4. Chhattisgarh, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Maharashtra

17. Rani told her friends that last year she did boating in four different lakes, namely, Loktak, Barapani, Kolleru and Pulicat. Which of the following States did she visit?

  1. Manipur, Meghalaya, Kerala, Tamil Nadu
  2. Manipur, Meghalaya, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu
  3. Mizoram, Assam, Kerala, Tamil Nadu
  4. Mizoram, Assam, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu

18. According to the Census 2011, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. A person who can only read but cannot write is not literate.
  2. A person agen seven years and above, who can both read and write with understanding in any language is treated as literate.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

19. The Tropic of Cancer passes through how many coastal and landlocked States of India, respectively?

  1. 1 and 7
  2. 2 and 6
  3. 2 and 5
  4. 3 and 5

20. Which one of the following situations can lead to inflation?

  1. Rapid growth of aggregate demand outweighing supply
  2. Sluggish growth of aggregate demand
  3. Reduction in the money supply
  4. Higher levels of unemployment

21. Which one of the following policies help to raise interest rate unambiguously and thereby lead to appreciation of currency?

  1. Expansionary fiscal and monetary policy
  2. Contractionary fiscal and monetary policy
  3. Contractionary fiscal policy and expansionary monetary policy
  4. Contractionary monetary policy and expansionary fiscal policy

22. The contraction of private investment spending due to deficit spending by the Government is called

  1. crowding out
  2. crowding in
  3. pump priming
  4. dumping

23. Which among the following is/are the objective/objectives of the NITI Aayog?

  1. Imposing policies on the States/UTs
  2. Allocation of funds at National and State levels
  3. Design strategies and long-term policies and programme frameworks

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1, 2 and 3
  4. 3 only

24. The computation of poverty in terms of Monthly Per Capita Consumption Expenditure (MPCE) based on the Mixed Reference Period was recommended by the

  1. Lakdawala Committee
  2. Tendulkar Committee
  3. Dandekar Committee
  4. Alagh Committee

25. Which of the following is/are the sub-mission/sub-missions of the National Skill Development Mission (NSDM)?

  1. Institutional training
  2. Overseas employment
  3. Leveraging of public infrastructure

Select the correct anwer using the code given below.

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 1, 2 and 3
  4. 2 and 3 only

26. Which of the following strategies is/are adopted for implementing the POSHAN Abhiyaan?

  1. Inter-sectoral convergence for better service delivery
  2. Use of technology (ICT) for real-time growth monitoring of women and children

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

27. Which of the following conditions is/are necessary for the issue of a writ of certiorari in India?

  1. There should be a tribunal or an officer having legal authority to determine questions affecting rights of subjects and having a duty to act judicially.
  2. Such tribunal or officer has acted without jurisdiction.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

28. Who among the following Chief Justices of India ordered the constitution of a Special Bench called 'Social Justice Bench'?

  1. Justice H.L. Dattu
  2. Justice K.G. Balakrishnan
  3. Justice R.M. Lodha
  4. Justice Y.K. Sabharwal

29. Who among the following is the author of the book, Bandi Jivan?

  1. Rash Behari Bose
  2. Veer Savarkar
  3. Aruna Asaf Ali
  4. Sachindranath Sanyal

30. In the election held in 1937, in which two provinces was the Indian National Congress not able to emerge as the single largest party?

  1. Punjab and Sind
  2. Assam and North-West Frontier Province
  3. Punjab and Assam
  4. Assam and Madras

31. Consider the following statements:
After forming the Indian National Army, Subhas Chandra Bose

  1. recruited a large number of soldiers from the Indian Prisoners of War in Japanese camp
  2. introduced a women's detachment named after the Rani of Jhansi

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

32. Which one of the following pairs denoting various forms of 'Bhakti' is not correctly matched?

  1. Saguna : Belief in Gods with attributes
  2. Nirguna : Belief in Gods without attributes
  3. Alvars : Believed in devotion of Shakti
  4. Nayanars : Believed in devotion of Shiva

33. Which two rivers flow in the region between Gulbarga and Vijayanagar Hampi?

  1. Narmada and Godavari
  2. Mahanadi and Godavari
  3. Kaveri and Periyar
  4. Krishna and Tungabhadra

34. Which one of the following is the only paramilitary force with a dual control structure?

  1. Central Reserve Police Force
  2. Assam Rifles
  3. Indo-Tibetan Border Police
  4. Central Industrial Security Force

35. Which one of the following is an ethnic community of Assam?

  1. Bhil
  2. Gond
  3. Ahom
  4. Adi

36. The Chevrons is the name of the cricket team of which one of the following countries?

  1. Australia
  2. The Netherlands
  3. Ireland
  4. Zimbabwe

37. Cheetahs, brought from Namibia, were introduced in India to which one of the following National Parks?

  1. Kaziranga National Park
  2. Keoladeo Ghana National Park
  3. Keibul Lamjao National Park
  4. Kuno National Park

38. Who among the following is not a recipient of the Nobel Prize in Physics in 2022?

  1. Alain Aspect
  2. John F. Clauser
  3. Klaus Hasselmann
  4. Anton Zeilinger

39. Reflex arcs are evolved in animals for quick and efficient responses. Which one of the following sequences correctly represents a reflex arc?

  1. Receptor-Sensory neuron-Relay neuron in spinal cord-Brain-Motor neuron-Effector
  2. Receptor-Sensory neuron-Brain-Relay neuron in spinal cord-Motor neuron-Effector
  3. Receptor-Motor neuron-Relay neuron in spinal cord-Senosry neuron-Effector
  4. Receptor-Motor neuron-Brain-Sensory neuron-Effector

40. Which one of the following is essential for thyroid gland to make thyroxin?

  1. NaCl
  2. KCl
  3. Cholesterol
  4. Iodine

41. In plant cells, RNA is present in

  1. cytoplasm only
  2. nuclei and cytoplasm only
  3. nuclei, cytoplasm, mitochondria, chloroplast and endoplasmic reticulum
  4. nuclei, cytoplasm, mitochondria, chloroplast and robosomes

42. In grasses, intercalary meristem is usually located at

  1. root tip
  2. lateral sides of stem
  3. base of leaves
  4. shoot tip

43. Xylem is a type of complex tissue in plants for upward conduction of water. Which one of the following xylem tissues consists of living cells?

  1. Trachied
  2. Vessel
  3. Xylem parenchyma
  4. Xylem fibre

44. Three resistors of resistances 11 ohms, 22 ohms and 33 ohms are connected in parallel. Thier equivalent resistance is equal to

  1. 66 ohms
  2. 22 ohms
  3. 12 ohms
  4. 6 ohms

45. The r.m.s. potential difference between the red live wire and black neutral wire in Indian domestic electric supply is

  1. 160 V
  2. 220 V
  3. 300 V
  4. 410 V

46. The hydrogen bomb and the uranium bomb are based, respectively on

  1. nuclear fusion and fission
  2. fission and thermonuclear fusion
  3. geothermal fusion and fission
  4. geothermal fusion and fission

47. Sound and light waves are

  1. respectively longitudinal and transverse in air
  2. respectively transverse and longitudinal in air
  3. both longitudinal in air
  4. both transverse in air

48. A car moving with a speed of 12 m/s is subjected to brakes which produces a deceleration of 6 m/s2. The car takes 2 s to stop after the application of brakes. What is the distance covered by the car after the application of brakes?

  1. 12 m
  2. 24 m
  3. 36 m
  4. 48 m

49. What is the chemical composition of a soda-acid type fire extinguisher?

  1. Solution of sodium hydrogen carbonate and sulfuric acid
  2. Solution of sodium carbonate and sulfuric acid
  3. Solution of carbon dioxide and sulfuric acid
  4. Solution of sodium chloride and sulfuric acid

50. Consider the following statements:
While diluting concentrated nitric acid solution

  1. the concentration of [H3O+ ions/volume increases
  2. water must be added slowely to concentrated acid
  3. acid must be added slowly to water

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 3 only
  4. 2 and 3 only

51. Which one of the following is the correct order of pH for the given substances?

  1. Coffee < Lemon juice < Milk of magnesia < Blood
  2. Milk of magnesia < Blood < Coffee < Lemon juice
  3. Lemon juice < Blood < Coffee < Milk of magnesia
  4. Lemon juice < Coffee < Blood < Milk of magnesia

52. Which one of the following is not true for anodizing process?

  1. It makes aluminium corrosion resistant.
  2. Metals like aluminium, titanium and magnesium can be anodized.
  3. Clean aluminium article is the anode and oxygen gas is evolved at the cathode.
  4. It is used in aircraft industry.

53. Naphthalene burns with a yellow sooty flame. This is because

  1. carbon to hydrogen ratio is low
  2. there is incomplete combusion
  3. there is excess supply of air
  4. of presence of impurities of nitrogen and sulfur

54. Which of the following statements are true for the reaction of Fe2O3 with aluminium?

  1. It is known as the thermite reaction.
  2. The heat evolved is used for welding purpose.
  3. Aluminium metal acts as an oxidizing agent.
  4. Molten Fe and Al are formed at the end of the reaction.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 1 and 3
  3. 2 and 4
  4. 1 and 4

55. Vicky told his friends about his visit to Stewart Island, Bay of Plenty and Hawke Bay. Which country did Vicky visit?

  1. Canada
  2. Australia
  3. New Zealand
  4. Ireland

56. Manav is planning to visit all UNESCO World Heritage Sites in Delhi. He will be visiting

  1. Red Fort, Qutab Minar, Jama Masjid
  2. Red Fort India Gate, Qutab Minar
  3. Red Fort, Qutab Minar, Humayun Tomb
  4. Red Fort, Humayun Tomb, India Gate

57. What will be the correct sequence of cities on the bank of river Ganga if someone moves from west to east?

  1. Prayagraj, Kanpur, Bhagalpur, Patna
  2. Prayagraj, Kanpur, Patna, Bhagalpur
  3. Kanpur, Prayagraj, Bhagalpur, Patna
  4. Kanpur, Prayagraj, Patna, Bhagalpur

58. Which one among the following States has the longest extension in north-south direction?

  1. Jharkhand
  2. Telangana
  3. Odisha
  4. Chhattishgarh

59. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I (Day)List II (Date)
A. World Wetlands Day1. 29 July
B. International Tiger Day2. 22 April
C. World Water Day3. 2 February
D. International Mother Earth Day4. 22 March

Code:

  1. A - 3; B - 4; C - 1; D - 2
  2. A - 3; B - 1; C - 4; D - 2
  3. A - 2; B - 1; C - 4; D - 3
  4. A - 2; B - 4; C - 1; D - 3

60. Which one of the following States/UTs is not among the top five in the Performance Grading Index (PGI), published by the Ministry of Education for the year 2020-2021?

  1. Kerala
  2. Punjab
  3. NCT of Delhi
  4. Chandigarh

61. Consider the following statements and identify the actress?

She is a renowned film actress, director and producer, and an accomplished Indian classical dancer. She was conferred the Padma Shri in 1992 and has served as the Head of Central Board for Film Certification from 1998 to 2001. In recognition to her exemplary lifetime contribution to Indian Cinema, she was honoured with prestigious Dadasaheb Phalke Award.

  1. Vyjayanthimala
  2. Waheeda Rehman
  3. Mala Sinha
  4. Asha Parekh

62. Which one of the following is the venue of the UN 2023 Water Conference?

  1. Washington, DC
  2. New York
  3. San Diego
  4. New Delhi

63. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. Tomb of Sand, written by Geetanjali Shree, is the first book originally written in any Indian language to win the International Booker Prize.
  2. Tomb of Sand is the first novel translated from Hindi to be given the International Booker Prize.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

64. The eighth edition of the Exercise Garuda Shakti, a bilateral military-to-military exercise, was conducted recently between the special forces of India and

  1. Japan
  2. Indonesia
  3. Bhutan
  4. Myanmar

65. Which one of the following is a measure that can be used by the Government for combating inflation?

  1. Increasing the non-planned expenditure on defence, police, etc.
  2. Providing more subsidies on exports
  3. Increasing the rate of interest on savings and fixed deposits
  4. Reduction in the cash reserve ratio (CRR)

66. The sustained decrease in the general price level is called as

  1. deflation
  2. stagflation
  3. devaluation
  4. recession

67. Which one of the following indicators is included in the National Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI)?

  1. Years of schooling
  2. Literacy rate
  3. Life expectancy
  4. Per capital income

68. The unemployment that occurs due to changes in the technology or in the demand for particular products is called

  1. frictional unemployment
  2. structural unemployment
  3. cyclical unemployment
  4. disguised unemployment

69. Which of the following is/are the objective/objectives of the Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana (PMSSY)?

  1. Correcting regional imbalances in the availability of tertiary health care services
  2. Providing iniversal access to public health services and universal immunization
  3. Augmenting facilities for quality medical education in the country

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

70. Who among the following political leaders suggested the dissolution of the Indian National Congress as a political organisation and its replacement by a Lok Sevak Sangh?

  1. Vallabhbhai Patel
  2. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
  3. M.K. Gandhi
  4. Jawaharlal Nehru

71. India is the first country in the world to deploy an all-woman contingent to a UN Peacekeeping Mission. In which country did this mission operate?

  1. Liberia
  2. Sudan
  3. Burundi
  4. Croatia

72. Which one among the following is not a part of the SWAYAM programme?

  1. Video lectures
  2. Classroom lectures
  3. Online discussion forum for clearing doubts
  4. Specially prepared material that can be downloaded/printed

73. Which one among the following Departments/Authorities is not under the Ministry of Home Affairs?

  1. The Department of States
  2. The Department of Official Language
  3. The National Authority Chemical Weapons Convention
  4. The Department of Jammu, Kashmir and Ladakh Affairs

74. Who among the following is given discretionary powers under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India to set up a Tribes Advisory Council in a State which has Scheduled Tribes but not Scheduled Areas?

  1. The Governor of the concerned State
  2. The President of India
  3. The Inter-State Council
  4. The Parliament of India

75. Which of the following States/UTs are included in the Northern Zonal Council?

  1. Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Haryana, Punjab, Jammu and Kashmir
  2. Haryana, Punjab, Himachal Pradesh, Rajasthan and NCT of Delhi
  3. Uttar Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Punjab, Haryana and Rajasthan
  4. Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh, Punjab and Haryana

76. The notion of kinship projected by the Kushana rulers is best evidenced through which of the following?

  1. Their identification with deities
  2. Grants to religious institutions
  3. Inscriptional panegyrics
  4. Coins and sculpture

77. Who among the following were referred to as the 'Theris' in ancient India?

  1. Respected women
  2. Elder nuns in Buddhism
  3. Women denied the Bhikkhuni status
  4. Women expelled from the Buddhist Sangha

78. Which member of the Servants of India Society founded the Seva Samiti at Allahabad in 1914?

  1. Shri Ram Pajpai
  2. Hriday Nath Kunzru
  3. S. G. Vaze
  4. Srinivas Shastri

79. The First Anglo-Maratha War was concluded by which one of the following?

  1. The Treaty of Surat
  2. The Treaty of Purandar
  3. The Convention of Wadgaon
  4. The Treaty of Salbai

80. Name the battle in which the Travancore King defeated the Dutch in 1741.

  1. The Batthle of Porto Novo
  2. The Battle of Colachel
  3. The Battle of Pollilore
  4. The Battle of Changanassery

81. In which one of the following revolts did the Koya and Konda tribal chiefs rise against the local overlord from a Mansabdar family?

  1. The Rampa Rebellion, 1879-1880
  2. The Gudem Uprising, 1886
  3. The Rampa Rebellion, 1922-1924
  4. The Telangana Armed Struggle, 1946-1951

82. Which country won the FIFA World Cup (Men) for maximum number of times?

  1. Argentina
  2. Brazil
  3. France
  4. Spain

83. Who among the following is the author of the famous novel, City of Joy?

  1. Larry Collins
  2. Dominique Lapierre
  3. Rudyard Kipling
  4. Mark Tully

84. Who among the following is honoured with the UN Environment Programme's 2022 Champions of the Earth Award in the Entrepreneurial Vision category?

  1. Ela Bhatt
  2. Amit Dasgupta
  3. Purnima Devi Barman
  4. Vanshika Parmar

85. The theme of India's G20 Presidency 'Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam' or 'One Earth-One Family-One Future' is drawn from the

  1. Maha Purana
  2. Maha Upanishad
  3. Rig Veda
  4. Smriti

86. The 16th edition of Indo-Nepal annual joint training exercise in jungle warfare and counterterrorism operations was held in December 2022 at Nepal Army Battle School, Saljhandi. What is the name of this exercise?

  1. Sampriti
  2. Mitra Shakti
  3. Yudh Abhyas
  4. Surya Kiran

87. If it is 10:00 a.m. at Greenwich Mean Time (GMT), then what will be the time at 90o E longitude?

  1. 5:00 a.m.
  2. 4:00 a.m.
  3. 3:00 p.m.
  4. 4:00 p.m.

88. Which of the following groups of planets is termed as 'gas planets' as they are composed primarily of lighter ices, liquids and gases?

  1. Mars, Jupiter, Neptune, Uranus
  2. Jupiter, Uranus, Nepture, Saturn
  3. Saturn, Mars, Jupiter, Neptune
  4. Neptune, Saturn, Mars, Uranus

89. Consider the following characteristics of a soil type:

  1. These soils consist of various proportions of sand, silt and clay.
  2. These soils contain adequate proportions of potash, phosphoric acid and lime.
  3. These soils can further classified on the basis of their age.

Identify the type of soil on the basis of the given characteristics.

  1. Alluvial
  2. Laterite
  3. Arid
  4. Black

90. Consider the following statements and identify the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. In a thermal power station, fuels such as oil, coal or natural gas are used to generate electricity.
  2. Fuels are burned to heat water and turn it into steam, which goes through a turbine, which spins and turns, generating electricity.

Code:

  1. Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is not correct
  2. Statement 2 is correct but statement 1 is not correct
  3. Both the statements are correct and statement 2 explains statement 1
  4. Both the statements are correct but statement 2 does not explain statement 1

91. Indus river basin is extended up to

  1. Ladakh, Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Punjab
  2. Ladakh, Jammu and Kashmir, Punjab, Haryana
  3. Ladakh, Jammu and Kashmir, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan
  4. Ladakh, Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan

92. Which one of the following statements about the Solicitor General of India (SGI) is not correct?

  1. The SGI is the Government's chief legal advisor.
  2. The SGI is the secondary law officer of the country.
  3. The post of the SGI is a constitutional post.
  4. The SGI is appointed by the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet.

93. Which one of the following committees does not have members from the Rajya Sabha?

  1. The Public Accounts Committee
  2. The Committee on Public Undertakings
  3. The Estimates Committee
  4. The Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes

94. Which one of the following statements about the election of the President of India is not correct?

  1. A Union Minister shall not be eligible for election as the President.
  2. The President is elected by the elected members of the Parliament and the Legislative Assemblies of States and Union Territories.
  3. The Electoral College does not include elected members of the Legislative Councils.
  4. The system of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote is followed.

95. The Citizenship Act, 1955 deals with the determination of citizenship on or after

  1. 26th January, 1950
  2. 26th November, 1949
  3. 15th August, 1947
  4. 14th August, 1947

96. According to the National Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) constructed by the NITI Aayog, a household is considered deprived if

  1. a single member of the household is identified as under-nourished
  2. the body mass index of a woman member, between 15 years and 49 years of age, is below 18.5 kg/m2

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

97. The titles of 'Rajyagajakesari' and 'Dayagajakesari' were associated with which one of the following dynasties?

  1. Kakatiya
  2. Vijayanagara
  3. Gajapati
  4. Rashtrakuta

98. Name the location of the musical inscription containing groups of musical notes arranged for the benefit of his pupils by a king in the seventh or eighth century CE

  1. Ennayiram
  2. Uttaramerur
  3. Siyyamangalam
  4. Kudumiyamalai

99. In the context of eighteenth century India, what was 'Dastak'?

  1. Signature
  2. Land document
  3. Trade permit
  4. Tax on textiles

100. Which one of the following was primarily associated with 'Dadni' system?

  1. Textile production
  2. Warfare
  3. Payment to officials
  4. Revenue collection

101. Consider the following statements about Kanaganahalli archaeological site:

  1. It is situated on the bank of Bhima river.
  2. The remains of the Kanaganahalli Stupa can be dated between 1st and 3rd centuries CE.
  3. Emperor Ashoka's image was found at the site.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

102. Which of the following statements about volcanoes are correct?

  1. The strength of a volcano is measured by the Volcanic Explosive Index.
  2. Iceland and Philippines were created by volcanic activity.
  3. Volcanic soils are rich, deep and fertile and allow intensive agriculture to take place.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

103. Consider the following characteristics of a cloud type:

  1. They are born through convection.
  2. Only cloud type that can produce hail, thunder and lightning.
  3. They are large cauliflower-shaped towers, often 'anvil tops'.

Identify the type of cloud on the basis of the given characteristics.

  1. Stratocumulus
  2. Cumulonimbus
  3. Cirrocumulus
  4. Nimbostratus

104. Meena wants to show diagrammatically how two sets of data, namely, population size and number of services are related to each other. Which one of the following will be the most suitable for the presentation?

  1. Pie chart
  2. Scatter graph
  3. Bar chart
  4. Triangular graph

105. Which one of the following Indian States has the longest coastline?

  1. Tamil Nadu
  2. Gujarat
  3. Maharashtra
  4. Andhra Pradesh

106. Which one of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. Visakhapatnam Port is a land-locked harbour.
  2. Deendayal Port is a tidal port.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

107. There is an increase in forest cover area of India between 2011 and 2021. However, there is a decrease in forest cover area of India during the same period in

  1. very dense forest (canopyu density of more than 70 percent)
  2. moderately dense forest (canopy density between 40-70 percent)
  3. open forest (canopy density between 10-20 percent)
  4. Both (b) and (c)

108. Consider the following statements concerning the National Education Policy, 2020:

  1. At least 50 percent of the learners through school and higher education system to get exposure to vocational education by 2025.
  2. Secondary schools should collaborate with ITIs, Polytechnics and local industries.
  3. Vocational education to be exclusively provided by NGOs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

109. Which of the following sets of States is at the bottom of the Composite SDG India Index, 2020-21 as per the NITI Aayog?

  1. Assam, Jharkhand, Bihar
  2. Uttar Pradesh, Jharkhand, Bihar
  3. Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Assam
  4. Odisha, Bihar, Jharkhand

110. Which one of the following is not a part of Article 51 of the Constitution of India?

  1. Promote international peace and security
  2. Maintain just and honourable relations between nations
  3. Use of UN peacekeeping force for resolution of international disputes
  4. Encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration

111. Who among the following was not in the core leadership of the Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) in its formative phase?

  1. Kwame Nkrumah
  2. Gamal Abdel Nasser
  3. Jawaharlal Nehru
  4. Fidel Castro

112. In respect to Balutedars, which of the statements given below are correct?

  1. They are village servants and artisans.
  2. They were employed by individual peasant family.
  3. They existed in the Medieval Deccan and Maharashtra.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

113. Which one of the following Viceroys was the first to officially shift his Council to Simla in summer season?

  1. John Lawrence
  2. Lord Dalhousie
  3. Lord Mayo
  4. William Bentick

114. Who among the following is the author of Maze Vidyapeeth, the famous poem about the life of working class of Bombay?

  1. Narayan Surve
  2. Amol Palekar
  3. Bhalchandra Nemade
  4. Narendra Jadhav

115. Who among the following founded the Hindu Dharma Sabha in the 19th century?

  1. Radhakanta Deb
  2. Ram Mohan Roy
  3. Dwarkanath Tagore
  4. Keshab Chandra Sen

116. The resolution adopted by the United Nations General Assembly on 3 March, 2021 decided to celebrate the year 2023 as the International Year of

  1. Basic Sciences for Sustainable Development
  2. Glass
  3. Millets
  4. Camelids

117. Karthik Meiyappan, who secured hat-trick in the ICC Men's T20 World Cup, 2022, represents

  1. Zimbabwe
  2. United Arab Emirates
  3. Sri Lanka
  4. Namibia

118. Which one of the following statements about the Wassenaar Arrangement is not correct?

  1. There are 42 participating nations in the Arrangement.
  2. It is formed primarily as a nuclear weapon overseer.
  3. India is the current Chairman of the Arrangement.
  4. India joined the Arrangement in the year 2017.

119. Who among the following is known as Payyoli Express?

  1. Hima Das
  2. Dutee Chand
  3. P.T. Usha
  4. Shiny Abraham

120. Match List-I with List-II relating to Sahitya Akademi Award winners, 2022 and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I (Title and Genre)List II (Author)
A. Bhool Satya (Short Stories)1. Kamal Ranga
B. Tumadi Ke Shabd (Poetry)2. Veena Gupta
C. Chhe Roopak (Drama)3. Badri Narayan
D. Alekhun Amba (Play)4. Manoj Kumar Goswami

Code:

  1. A - 1; B - 2; C - 3; D - 4
  2. A - 1; B - 3; C - 2; D - 4
  3. A - 4; B - 3; C - 2; D - 1
  4. A - 4; B - 2; C - 3; D - 1